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Post by wednesday on Mar 10, 2010 11:29:35 GMT
If a king marries another royal, will his wife automatically become queen? If a king marries a commoner, will his wife become a queen?
If a queen marries another royal, will her husband automatically become queen? If a queen marries a commoner, will her husband become a king.
Thank you, Wednesday
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Post by observer on Mar 11, 2010 7:28:30 GMT
If a king marries another royal, will his wife automatically become queen? If a king marries a commoner, will his wife become a queen? If a queen marries another royal, will her husband automatically become queen? If a queen marries a commoner, will her husband become a king. Thank you, Wednesday The answers to your questions depend on the countries concerned. For example, in most European and some African monarchies the wife of a reigning king, whether or not she is a royal birth, becomes queen. This is also the case in some Muslim monarchies (e.g., Jordan) the king's wife may or may not become queen, but in others (e.g. Morocco, Saudi Arabia) this is not the case. Nowadays. a reigning queen's husband rarely becomes king consort, whether or not he was of royal birth, although this has happened in the past (e.g., in Spain, Portugal, England and Scotland). I believe there is no case of a reigning queen's husband being declared queen consort, however. |
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Post by Cinderella on Mar 12, 2010 18:43:19 GMT
Wednesday, welcome to the board!
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Post by HRISMH Duke Rico on Mar 14, 2010 6:13:15 GMT
Nowadays. a reigning queen's husband rarely becomes king consort, whether or not he was of royal birth, although this has happened in the past (e.g., in Spain, Portugal, England and Scotland). I believe there is no case of a reigning queen's husband being declared queen consort, however. England has never had a King Consort. When Mary II was given the throne (as a regnant queen) her husband was procliamed as king in his own right, his reign exceded her death. That is the only time that the throne of england has had a king at the same time as a regnant queen. |
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Post by dukeofearl on Mar 14, 2010 9:34:44 GMT
Nowadays. a reigning queen's husband rarely becomes king consort, whether or not he was of royal birth, although this has happened in the past (e.g., in Spain, Portugal, England and Scotland). I believe there is no case of a reigning queen's husband being declared queen consort, however. actually Mary I's husband Philip II of spain was king consort (he was just prince of austurias then). its true his pops, Charles V, named him king of naples at the last minute to add a lil equality but mary named him king (one of very unpopular moves) |
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Post by observer on Mar 15, 2010 6:52:22 GMT
Under the terms of the marriage treaty between Mary and Philip, he was to be styled "King of England," but the treaty limited his royal authority as king-consort and a number of parliamentary acts defined his subordinate status as he was entitled to exercise them only "for so long as the matrimony endureth".
Henry Stuart, Lord Darnley, Mary Queen of Scots second husband, was given the title of King of Scots at a proclamation published at the Cross of Edinburgh on the 30 July 1565, but he was King Consort only, with no royal powers. Mary's first husband, Francis II of France, is also seen as having been King Consort, though her third husband (James Hepburn) is not.
Francis, Duke of Cadiz, was King-Consort to Isabella II of Spain. Peter III was King-Consort to Maria I of Portual, and Ferdinand of Saxe-Coburg-Gotha, as Ferdinand II, was King-Consort to Maria II da Gloria of Portugal. The Emperor Francis I was King-Consort of Bohemia and Hungary.
It may be argued that Philip II actually received what is known as the Crown Matrimonial, i.e., the legal concept used to describe a person's right to co-reign equally with his or her spouse, but it is not clear that the others did.
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Post by Aidan Work on Mar 24, 2010 1:39:55 GMT
In Queen Victoria's case,Prince Albert was declared Prince Consort.
Prince Philip,Duke of Edinburgh,on the other hand,has never been declared Prince Consort,as he has been known to say,"Constitutionally,I don't exist".
Aidan.
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Post by Gordon Gallagher on Aug 17, 2010 19:29:22 GMT
So the question is, is or can one be royalty if one’s ‘ascendants’ are royalty, haven’t abdicated or anything else, but say such a person is not in their country of royalty, instead in some country such as America.
If the answer is yes, then what about by artificial insemination, can some woman go buy sperm, get knocked up, and produce a prince/lord/princess/lady?
Edited by Cinderella. Please don't advertise commercial sites on this message board.
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Post by observer on Aug 17, 2010 23:52:27 GMT
So the question is, is or can one be royalty if one’s ‘ascendants’ are royalty, haven’t abdicated or anything else, but say such a person is not in their country of royalty, instead in some country such as America. If the answer is yes, then what about by artificial insemination, can some woman go buy sperm, get knocked up, and produce a prince/lord/princess/lady? Whether or not one is royal because one's "ascendants" were royal depends entirely on the rules or laws in each country. For example, in the UK the great-grand-children of King Georg V are not royal - the children of the Dukes of Kent and Gloucester are titled commoners at best. Similarly in some Asian countries such as Thailand, where descendants in the fifth generation are untitled commoners and the two previous ones (Mom Rajawongse and Mom Luang) are titled commoners. Other countries, such as Saudi Arabia, seem to go on forever. If one is in a foreign country, then any royal status is a matter of courtesy only, rather than of right. Any child conceived outside marriage, whether by artificial insemination or otherwise, whether or not the sperm donor is royal, is usually counted as illegitimate and, therefore, non-royal. There are many examples of this, contemporary ones being Princess Stephanie of Monaco's youngest daughter, both children of Prince Albert of Monaco, and the child of the present Duke of Parma and Piacenza. |
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