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Post by Avikar on Nov 18, 2014 22:47:08 GMT
How would this work? The Queen gives birth to a daughter, but has no other living children before she dies. The King re-marries. His bride becomes pregnant but he dies before the baby is born. Would the daughter automatically be named Queen or would they wait to see if the new Queen had a boy or lost the child before anyone ascended? What would be the proedure? And wouldit differ based on the daughters age? Like if the daughter waas 12 instead of 24.
I'm thinking of old times. 1500s or later possibly. And a European Kingdom
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Post by observer on Nov 21, 2014 0:39:04 GMT
How would this work? The Queen gives birth to a daughter, but has no other living children before she dies. The King re-marries. His bride becomes pregnant but he dies before the baby is born. Would the daughter automatically be named Queen or would they wait to see if the new Queen had a boy or lost the child before anyone ascended? What would be the proedure? And wouldit differ based on the daughters age? Like if the daughter waas 12 instead of 24. I'm thinking of old times. 1500s or later possibly. And a European Kingdom There would probably be a regency until such time as the unborn child arrived, and then the heir according to the country's succession laws would be proclaimed monarch. An example is the case of French king Louis X's queen, Clemence d'Anjou, who was pregnant at the time of his death in 1316. Louis' living daughter was passed over, Louis' brother became regent till Clemence gave birth to a boy who immediately succeeded to the throne as King Jean I. In recent times, this happened in Spain = King Alfonso XII died while his wife was pregnant, so his widow became regent for her unborn child. If the child had been a girl, their older daughter would have become Queen but, as the child was a boy, he became King (as Alfonso XIII) on his birth. While the child is a legal minor (as determined for monarchs, and which may differ from that for others), a regent would rule.
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